# ICSE Class 10 For Physics Question Paper Solved Set F

Students should refer to ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Paper solved Set F given below which will help them to prepare for the upcoming ICSE Physics exams. Students should read ICSE Physics Class 10 Books to make sure they are completely prepared and should also refer to ICSE Class 10 Physics Solutions to understand all questions and their answers.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Paper solved Set F

nswers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Section I is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Paper solved Set F
SECTION – I (40 Marks)
(Attempt all Questions)

Question 1.
(a) A force is applied on (i) a non-rigid body and (ii) a rigid body. How does the effect of the force differ in the above two cases? 
(b) A metallic ball is hanging by a string from a fixed support. D raw a neat labelled diagram showing the forces acting on the ball and the string. 
( c ) (i) What is the weight of a body placed at the centre of the earth?
(ii) What is the principle of an ideal machine? 
(d) Is it possible to have an accelerated motion with a constant speed? Explain. 
(e) (i) When does a force do work?
(ii) What is the work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth? 

(a) (i) When a force applied on a non-rigid body, it changes the interspacing between its constituent particles and therefore causes a change in its dimensions and can also produce motion in it.
(ii) When a force is applied on a rigid body, it does not change the interspacing between its constituent particles and therefore it does not change the dimensions of the object but causes only the motion in it.

(c) (i) The weight of a body placed at the centre of the ea rth is zero because value of g = 0 at the center of the earth.
(ii) An ideal machine is that in which there is no dissipation of energy in any manner.
∴ Principle of an ideal machine = work done by a machine = work done on the machine / work output = work input
(d) Yes. The velocity of particle in circular motion is variable or the circular motion is accelerated even though the speed of particle is uniform.
(e) (i) Work is said to be done only when the force applied on a body makes the body moves i.e., there is displacement of the body.
(ii) The work done by the moon when it revolves around the earth is zero.

Question 2.
(a) Calculate the change in the Kinetic energy of a moving body if its velocity is reduced to 1/3rd of the initial velocity.  (b) State the energy changes in the following devices while in use :
(i) A loud speaker.
(ii) A glowing electric bulb. 
( c ) (i) What is nuclear energy?
(ii) Name the process used for producing electricity using nuclea r energy. 
(d) State one important advantage and disadvantage each of using nuclear energy for producing electricity. 
(e) (i) The conversion of part of the energy into an undesirable form is called …………. .
(ii) For a given height h, …………. the length 1 of the inclined plane, lesser will be the effort required. 

(b) (i) Electrical energy converted to sound energy.
(ii) Electrical energy converted to heat energy and to light energy.
(c) (i) In nuclear fission and fusion there is a loss in mass due to loss in mass energy released. The energy so released is called the nuclear energy.
(ii) Nuclear fission.
(d) Advantage : A very small amount of nuclear fuel can produce a tremendous amount of energy.
Disadvantage : Very harmful nuclear radiations are produced in the process which are highly energetic and penetrating.
(e) (i) Dissipation of energy. (ii) More.

Question 3.
(a) Draw the diagram given below and clearly show the path taken by the emergent ray. 

(b) (i) What is consumed using different electrical appliances, for which electricity bills are paid?
(ii) Name a common device that uses electromagnets. 
(c) (i) A ray of light passes from water to air. How does the speed of light change?
(ii) Which colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air? 
(d) Name the factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media. 
(e) (i) Name a prism required for obtaining a spectrum of Ultraviolet light.
(ii) Name the radiations which can be detected by a thermopile. 

⇒ Correct path of the refracted ray shown
⇒ Correct path of emergent ray shown
(b) (i) Electrical energy. (ii) Electrical bell (Door Bell) / microphone / Electric motor
(c) (i) Speed of light increases.
(ii) Red colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air.
(d) Factors affecting the critical angle for the pair of media are :
(i) Wavelength of light
(ii) Effect of temperature of the medium
(iii) Refractive index of the pair of media.
(e) (i) Quartz prism.
(ii) Infrared radiations can be detected by thermopile.

Question 4.
(a) Why is the colour red used as a sign of danger? 
(b) (i) What are mechanical waves?
(ii) Name one property of waves that do no change when the wave passes from one medium to another. 
(c) Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. 

(d) 50 g of metal piece at 27ºC requires 2400 J of heat energy so as to attain a temperature of 327ºC. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. 
(e) An electron emitter must have …………. work function and …………. melting point. 

(a) Since the wavelength of red light is maximum in the visible light, the light of red colour is scattered least by the air molecules of the atmosphere and therefore it can reach to a longer distance and can be seen easily from farthest distance.
(b) (i) The waves which require a medium for their propagation are called elastic or mechanical waves. These waves travel in the medium though the vibrations of the medium particles about their mean positions.
(ii) Frequency.

(e) An electron emitter must have low work function and high melting point.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Paper solved Set F
SECTION – II (40 Marks)
(Attempt any four questions from this Section)

Question 5.
(a) (i) A man having a box on his head, climbs up a slope and another man having an identical box walks the same distance on a levelled road. Who does more work against the force of gravity and why?
(ii) Two forces each of 5N act vertically upwards and downwards respectively on the two ends of a uniform metre rule which is placed at its mid-point as shown in the diagram. Determine the magnitude of the resultant moment of these forces about the midpoint. 

(b) (i) A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity keeps on decreasing. What happens to its kinetic energy as its velocity becomes zero?
(ii) Draw a diagram to show how a single pulley can be used so as to have its ideal M.A. = 2. 
( c ) Derive a relationship between mechanical advantages, velocity ratio and efficiency of a machine. 

(a) (i) Man climbs up a slope does more work against the force of graving wherea s the work done by the man walking on a levelled road is zero because displacement is normal to the force of gravity.

(b) (i) When a body thrown vertically upward its velocity continuously decreases, kinetic energy also decrease and potential energy increases due to increase in height.
∴ K.E. completely changes to P.E.
(ii) Single Movable Pulley.

(c) Let a machine overcome a load L by the application of an effort E. In time t, let the displacement of effort be dE and the displacement of load be dL.

Thus, the mechanical advantage of a machine is equal to the product of its efficiency and velocity ratio.

Question 6.
(a) (i) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. In what way does the direction of the two emer gent beams differ and why?
(ii) Ranbir claims to have obtained an image twice the size of the object with a concave lens. Is he correct? Give a reason for your answer. 
(b) A lens forms an erect, magnified and virtual image of an object.
(i) Name the lens.
(ii) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the image formation. 
(c) (i) Define the power of a lens.
(ii) The lens mentioned in 6(b) above is of focal length 25 cm. Calculate the power of the lens. 

(a) (i) In a rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but they are not along the same line whereas in a prism the emergent ray is not parallel to incident ray. Beca use in a glass block the two surfa ces at which refraction occurs is parallel to each other.
(ii) No. By the concave lens only diminished images are obtained.
(b) (i) Convex lens.
(ii) Object drawn b/w the optical center and the principle focus.

(c) (i) The power of a lens is a measure of deviation produced by it in the path of rays refracted through it.
(ii) Power of lens (in D) = 1/Focal length (in metre)
= 100/ Focal length (in centimetre)
= 100/25 = 4D.

Question 7.
(a) The adjacent diagram shows three different modes of vibrations P, Q and R of the same string.
(i) Which vibrations will produce a louder sound and why?
(ii) The sound of which string will have maximum shrillness?
(iii) State the ratio of wavelengths of P and R. 

(b) A type of electromagnetic wave has wavelength 50 Å .
(i) Name the wave.
(ii) What is the speed of the wave in vacuum?
(iii) State one use of this type of wave. 
(c) (i) State one important property of waves used for echo depth sounding.
(ii) A radar sends a signal to an aircraft at a distance of 30 km away and receives it back after 2 × 10–4 second. What is the speed of the signal? 

(a) (i) R will produce louder sound because its amplitude is more than P and Q.
(ii) The sound of P string will have maximum shrillness.
(iii) The ratio of wavelength of P and R is 1 : 3.
(b) (i) X-Rays. (ii) 3 × 108 m/s.
(iii) X-Rays are used for detection of fracture in bones.
(c) (i) The ultrasonic waves travel undeviated through long distances and they can be confined to a narrow beam.
(ii) Distance of aircraft = 30 km = 30 × 1000 m = 30,000 m
Total distance = 2 × 30,000 = 60,000 m
Time taken = 2 × 10–4 second
Hence, Speed of sound V = distance travelled (2d) / time taken (t)
= 60,000 / 2×10-4 = 30,000 × 104 m/s
= 3 × 108 m/s.

Question 8.
(a) Two resistors of 4W and 6W are connected in parallel to a cell to draw 0.5 A current from the cell.
(i) Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing the above a rrangement.
(ii) Calculate the current in each resistor. 
(b) (i) What is an Ohmic resistor?
(ii) Two copper wires are of the same length, but one is thicker than the other.
(1)Which wire will have more resistance?
(2) Which wire will have more specific resistance? 
(c) (i) Two sets A and B, of the three bulbs each, are glowing in two separate rooms. When one of the bulbs in set A is fused, the other two bulbs, alos cease to glow. But in set B, when one bulb fuses, the other two bulbs continue to glow. Explain why this phenomenon occur s.
(ii) Why do we prefer arrangement of Set B for house circuiting? 

(ii)   Let current through 4Ω resistance is then current through 6Ω resistance is (0.5 – i)
∴ i × 4 = (0.5 – i) × 6
4i = 3 – 6i
4i + 6i = 3
10i = 3
i = 0.3 A
∴ Current through 4Ω resistance = 0.3 A
and current through 6Ω resistance = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2 A
(b) (i) Ohmic Resistors : The conductors which obey Ohm’s law are called the Ohmic resistors or linear resistances. For such resistors, a graph plotted for the potential difference V against current I is a straight line.
(ii) (1) Thin wire will have more resistance because the resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross-section.
(2) Specific resistance of both wire is same because specific resistance depends upon the nature of the medium which is the same (copper) in both cases.
(c) (i) The bulbs of set A are connected in series. Therefore when one bulb fuse the current stop flowing. Whereas the bulbs of set B are connected in parallel. When one bulb fuse then the current flows through the other bulb.
(ii) Set B prefer parallel combination because in it potential difference remains same.

Question 9.
(a) Heat energy is supplied at a constant rate to 100g of ice at 0 ºC. The ice is converted into water at 0 ºC in 2 minutes. How much time will be required to raise the temperature of water from 0 ºC to 20 ºC? [Given : sp. heat capacity of water = 4.2 J g–1 ºC–1, sp. latent heat of ice = 336 J g–1]. 
(b) Specific heat capacity of substance A is 3.8 J g–1 K–1 whereas the Specific heat capacity of substance B is 0.4 J g–1 K–1.
(i) Which of the two is a good conductor of heat?
(ii) How is one led to the above conclusion?
(iii) If substances A and B are liquids then which one would be more useful in car radiators? 
(c) (i) State any two measures to minimize the impact of global warming.
(ii) What is the Greenhouse effect? 

(a) m = 100g, t = 2 minutes = 2 × 60 sec.
Heat energy taken by ice at 0ºC to convert to water at 0ºC.
Q = mL = 100 × 336 = 33600 J

(b) (i) Substance B is a good conductor of heat.
(ii) Because specific capacity of B is less then that of A. [lower the specific heat capacity, better the conducting power]
(iii) Substance A is more useful in car radiator.
(c) (i) Two measures to minimize the impact of global warming are : (1) Technological measures
(2) Economic measures
(ii) The green house effect is the phenomenon in which infrared radiations of long wavelength given out from the surface of the earth are absorbed by its atmospheric gases to keep the environment warm at the earth’s surface and the lower atmosphere.

Question 10.
(a) (i) Name two factors on which the magnitude of an induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil depends.
(ii) In the following diagram an arrow shows the motion of the coil towards the bar magnet.
(1) State in which direction the current flows, A to B or B to A?
(2) Name the law used to come to the conclusion.

(b) A nucleus 11Na24 emits a beta particle to change into Magnesium (Mg)
(i) Write the symbolic equation for the process.
(ii) What are numbers 24 and 11 called?
(iii) What is the general name of 2412Mg with respect to 2411Na ? 
(c) In a cathode ray tube state :
(i) The purpose of covering cathode by thorium and carbon.
(ii) The purpose of the fluorescent scr een.
(iii) How is it possible to increase the rate of emission of electrons.